acts - Does the Greek word anēr mean man (adult male) or male …
May 1, 2023 · The reasonable view is that every time aner is used, it speaks of a male of mature years, as opposed to a baby, a child, or a youth. When such a youngster is meant, there are …
gender - Is the use of "aner" in 1 timothy 2:12 to be translated ...
Dec 18, 2024 · Aner is an individual, identifiable male person. Anthropos may, as in English, be translated 'man' indiscriminately or as 'humanity', which often is the better translation.
Why did ESV translate Ἄνδρες in Acts 27:10 as "Sirs" and in Acts …
Aug 9, 2020 · The Greek word ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός (aner, andros) always means "man". However, when used as a form of address in the vocative plural, namely, ἄνδρες (andres), it might be …
Why was Shiloh named Shiloh? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack …
Apr 15, 2025 · Why is Hebron called Hebron? Genesis 14.13 And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew--now he dwelt by the terebinths of Mamre the Amorite, …
"Have the people sit down...So the men sat down" - John 6:10
May 19, 2024 · The verse in question reads as follows: (John 6:10, ESV) "Jesus said, 'Have the people sit down.' Now there was much grass in the place. So the men sat down, about five …
Who is/are the referent(s) of the Greek words "ho Theos" at Mark …
Jun 17, 2020 · The following verses have the words "ho Theos" in their Greek translations. There are a lot more. Mark 1:1 Matthew 3:9 Mark 13:19 Luke 2:19 Acts 2:11 John …
What are the Hebrew words for Man and Woman? [closed]
The Hebrew word for man is אָדָם (adam) or אּישׁ (ish). The "out of man" (מֵאִ֖ישׁ meish, also transliterated me’iysh) in this passage derives from the latter form. Like in Gen 2:23, ish often …
What is the meaning of "husband of one wife" in 1 Timothy 3:2?
Aug 9, 2015 · The "must be" command at least demands a literal application of some sort for this qualification, as do the others in this list, so each local congregation will need to agree when …
What does θεός mean in John 1:1, 20:28?
Question In John 1:1,Jesus is called by an anarthrous θεός while in John 20:28, it's by articular θεός. What's the difference if there's any? What does θεός mean in John 1:1, 20:28?
Why do scholars think Abraham came from Ur in Mesopotamia?
Jun 16, 2022 · Most scholars still think that Abraham came from Ur in southern Mesopotamia / Sumer. This seems strange for a number of reasons, including: -The Ur in Mesopotamia is …